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No Lose Correct Score Betting (Slicer Method)


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#16 kmabet

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Posted 20 February 2010 - 05:57 PM

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#17 InPlayTrader

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Posted 20 February 2010 - 06:08 PM

I tried it for Pompey game - though did not actually bet (One on ESPN now)

Using one scenario, I would have a profit of £13 at half-time if its not 0-0. If it 0-0, my potential loss would be £56 but I wold have potential profit of £160 (approx) through backing 0-0 with £20. I could then lay 0-0 with more than £20 to guarantee a profit as the odds should have dropped by then.

Seems to work ! So if this isn't the system, will need to think about it again (But I like this anyway and might experiment with it and post it if it works consistently)

I will just ask you yes or no like my colleague Kevin

Is Bet 1 lay 0-0 H/ T (Yes)
Is Bet 2 back 0-0 full-time
Is bet 3 lay 0-0?

(I think you are saying 'no' to at least bet 3?





IT, you are not I'm afraid.

Good luck and thankyou for trying this.

If you get it, I will confirm for you and you will be rewarded for your investment in time, many times over.



#18 kmabet

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Posted 20 February 2010 - 06:41 PM

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#19 InPlayTrader

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Posted 20 February 2010 - 06:53 PM

Thanks - I can see now what you mean, as the amount you lay at ht on 0-0 would be a prob if it was 0-0 due to the original loss on that market.

I will have a think about this and see if I can crack it!

If you feel like giving any more clues than that would be great! :)

#20 InPlayTrader

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Posted 20 February 2010 - 07:16 PM

OK, I am going to write down what is known - this will help me work it out I hope.

Bet 1 = Lay 0-0 Half-time
Bet 2 = Back 0-0 full time

Clearly, the lay in Bet 1 must be > than the back of 0-0 in case there is a goal before half-time

So if there's a goal, no problem, you have a profit.

If its 0-0 at half time, you have a loss on the lay, BUT you still have a "Potential" profit if it finishes 0-0.

You therefore need to find a bet which also covers a goal in the second half. so that the profit on a goal in the second half makes up for 2 losses: the loss on the lay H/T and the loss on the back 0-0.

OK, I am fairly sure that the above must be correct?

So the red you must be referring to is what happens if there is a goal and the green must be similarly the green that must outwieght this red.

But didn't you say Bet 3 is also a single bet on the correct score market - is that right? (Yes /No?)

And this would have to be made at half-time? (Yes / No?)




Thanks - I can see now what you mean, as the amount you lay at ht on 0-0 would be a prob if it was 0-0 due to the original loss on that market.

I will have a think about this and see if I can crack it!

If you feel like giving any more clues than that would be great! :)



#21 kmabet

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Posted 20 February 2010 - 07:28 PM

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#22 kmabet

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Posted 21 February 2010 - 02:57 PM

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#23 99reds

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Posted 21 February 2010 - 06:22 PM

This is not something you can expect to solve in an afternoon!

A lot of time and effort invested now could see your betting life transformed.



Is the critical factor the relationship between the odds to lay 0-0 at HT and the odds to back 0-0 at FT?

For instance do the FT odds have to be 4x or more the HT odds?

What percentage of in-play games would you be able to use the system on?

#24 iow77

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Posted 21 February 2010 - 06:33 PM

What about laying off the back of 0-0 at half time to cover losses on 0-0 1-0 and 0-1 and then backing Over 1.5 at HT? Not sure the odds would work but it might be worth a look.

#25 99reds

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Posted 21 February 2010 - 06:44 PM

What about laying off the back of 0-0 at half time to cover losses on 0-0 1-0 and 0-1 and then backing Over 1.5 at HT? Not sure the odds would work but it might be worth a look.



The deeper you look the more complicated it gets, was trying it out on the City v Liverpool game but could not get the 8% profit which is the aim if it is 0-0 at HT.

Not sure about your suggestion, will have to look out for a game to try it on. Have not got into actual score lines yet, looking more on the over/under theory at moment.

#26 kmabet

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Posted 21 February 2010 - 08:33 PM

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#27 kmabet

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Posted 21 February 2010 - 08:35 PM

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#28 kmabet

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Posted 21 February 2010 - 08:36 PM

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#29 99reds

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Posted 21 February 2010 - 10:14 PM

In answer,

Not always (you're still looking for outcomes)

Depends on what the actual odds are

It's hard to say but I played

Aston Villa Vs Burnley today

And I'm playing Real Madrid Vs Villareal now.

Which obviously both won with just bet 1 which wins me £36 per time less commission.

I am making this too easy!



That is what I was getting at. You play on games that have odds that are lopsided rather than a closely matched game, so you would play on Villa v Burnley but not City v Liverpool.

#30 kmabet

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Posted 21 February 2010 - 10:19 PM

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