254 replies to this topic

[kmabet]

1

[99reds]

I've been playing around with the correct score markets for a good few years now and recently chanced up on an archived betfair thread containing comments from the infamour Dr Slicer.

Although he has taken much criticism over the years, I can assure you that it really can be done!
Everything he stated was correct if you viewed it in literal terms.

If anyone is up for the challenge, I'd like to give you the opportunity to crack it.

System is 3 bets.

2 before kick off and 1 in running if necessary.

Bet 1 is LAY 0-0 Half Time on correct scores market.

If bet 1 wins, bet 2 will always lose.


Sorry it is probably me just being a little slow kma but can you tell me what is:-

Bet 1

Bet 2

Bet 3

Thanks

If bet 1 loses, adjust bet 2 and place bet 3 for a guaranteed profit.

[kmabet]

1

[99reds]

I've been playing around with the correct score markets for a good few years now and recently chanced up on an archived betfair thread containing comments from the infamour Dr Slicer.

Although he has taken much criticism over the years, I can assure you that it really can be done!
Everything he stated was correct if you viewed it in literal terms.

If anyone is up for the challenge, I'd like to give you the opportunity to crack it.

System is 3 bets.

2 before kick off and 1 in running if necessary.

Bet 1 is LAY 0-0 Half Time on correct scores market.

If bet 1 wins, bet 2 will always lose.

If bet 1 loses, adjust bet 2 and place bet 3 for a guaranteed profit.

Ok sorry, I get you now, it is a conundrum, a riddle, an impossibility?
First off, if you make 2 bets before kick-off and then possibly one in-play, then I would imagine (and I have not had chance to check any of this out yet) any profit margins are going to be in single figures because you are going to have losing bets and you are only going to cover those losers with a strategic staking plan/timing plan.

I am assuming all these bets are on the Correct score market - is that correct?

Bet 1 is to lay 0-0 at HT
If Bet 1 wins, Bet 2 always loses, ergo Bet 2 must be to back 0-0 at FT.

So lets look at a scenario, the game is 1-0 at HT, your Bet 1 has won but Bet 2 has lost, so depending on your staking you will come out with x% profit (don't have any odds figures at this stage).

By far the best scenario would be a goal in the first half because you can guarantee a profit with correct staking.

The worst scenario would be for it to be 0-0 at HT. I am assuming that you don't place Bet 3 before HT and you only place it at HT if it is still 0-0.

So let's say that the worst comes to the worst and it is 0-0 at HT. Bet 1 has lost but Bet 2 has a chance of winning (in fact a much better chance than it had at the start of the game). So the odds
on 0-0 have come down significantly (I don't know by how much).

You have lost big on the 0-0 at HT, so it is now a question of re-assessing odds of 0-0 at FT and odds of other scores as well, because there is always a goal in the 2nd half isn't there. That is as far as I can go
tonight because I don't have any available live odds to deal with. I would think that if this is a possibility (and I'm not at all sure it is) there must be some further criteria as to which matches you can use it on.

[iow77]

Ok sorry, I get you now, it is a conundrum, a riddle, an impossibility?
First off, if you make 2 bets before kick-off and then possibly one in-play, then I would imagine (and I have not had chance to check any of this out yet) any profit margins are going to be in single figures because you are going to have losing bets and you are only going to cover those losers with a strategic staking plan/timing plan.

I am assuming all these bets are on the Correct score market - is that correct?

Bet 1 is to lay 0-0 at HT
If Bet 1 wins, Bet 2 always loses, ergo Bet 2 must be to back 0-0 at FT.

So lets look at a scenario, the game is 1-0 at HT, your Bet 1 has won but Bet 2 has lost, so depending on your staking you will come out with x% profit (don't have any odds figures at this stage).

By far the best scenario would be a goal in the first half because you can guarantee a profit with correct staking.

The worst scenario would be for it to be 0-0 at HT. I am assuming that you don't place Bet 3 before HT and you only place it at HT if it is still 0-0.

So let's say that the worst comes to the worst and it is 0-0 at HT. Bet 1 has lost but Bet 2 has a chance of winning (in fact a much better chance than it had at the start of the game). So the odds
on 0-0 have come down significantly (I don't know by how much).

You have lost big on the 0-0 at HT, so it is now a question of re-assessing odds of 0-0 at FT and odds of other scores as well, because there is always a goal in the 2nd half isn't there. That is as far as I can go
tonight because I don't have any available live odds to deal with. I would think that if this is a possibility (and I'm not at all sure it is) there must be some further criteria as to which matches you can use it on.


I was part of a group who tried to crack this and if you think you have then well done. I do hope you will eventually enlighten this forum with your wisdom. We finally came to the conclusion that it was a hoax because the loss on HT market is difficult to get back and although you can trade out of the 0-0 at FT you cannot make the loss up. My suggestion is to lay off to cover results below over 2.5 and then back overs but still dont think that will make up the losses let alone get you a profit.

[kmabet]

2

[kmabet]

2

[knobbo]

To give you allan opportunity to crack it!

Thought you'd got it anyway?

Think I do but I just need to find the correct odds criteria to select pre match. Dont suppose you want to give me this?

[kmabet]

2

[kmabet]

3

[99reds]

Still no takes?
You are a stubborn bunch are you not?

Does the match you are playing on need certain odds parameters before you start?

Is Bet 2 to back 0-0 at FT?

If you have to place Bet 3, is it on a Correct Score?

Is Bet 3 actually more than 1 bet?

[kmabet]

3

[99reds]

Yes
Yes
Yes
Sometimes

If Bet 3 is required is it placed at HT?

Is Bet 3 a back bet or is it a lay bet?

Do you increase your bet on Bet 2?

[kmabet]

3

[InPlayTrader]

The system is interesting; I think I worked out how to use this system. To carry on the conundrum theme, the clue is that you need to ensure that the potential profit from Bet 2 more than outweights the potential loss from bet 1 so that you can once more easily cover with Bet 3 - which must surely be a lay of 0-0.

Am I getting closer?

If Bet 3 is required is it placed at HT?

Is Bet 3 a back bet or is it a lay bet?

Do you increase your bet on Bet 2?